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This is one of my newb threads but I am a bit confused by the following:
Right now on Bestfightodds.com the best odds for the Benavidez v Borg fight are :
Benavidez -102 Borg -106
Does this mean that the market sees this fight as more or less 50/50, and the reason why none of the fighter lands in positive territory is because of the bookey's cuts?
Right now on Bestfightodds.com the best odds for the Benavidez v Borg fight are :
Benavidez -102 Borg -106
Does this mean that the market sees this fight as more or less 50/50, and the reason why none of the fighter lands in positive territory is because of the bookey's cuts?